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#1
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We use QW 2003 Deluxe. We have been re-investing in a security for
several years. Is the cost of re-investing the dividends added to our cost basis although we have paid taxes on the dividends that were re-invested. Thank-You |
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#2
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Yes. More correctly, reinvested dividends are added to the cost base
*because* you have paid tax on them. This way, you don't pay tax twice. A higher cost base gives a lower capital gain when sold. -- Regards, Fred |
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#3
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Hi, dmorri.
As discussed frequently here, the typical "reinvest dividend" transaction is actually two transactions, and should be recorded that way in Quicken. First, record the cash dividend. Then record the purchase of additional shares, using the cash from the dividend. The "other side" of each of these transactions should produce the answers you are looking for. Recording the cash dividend should increase your Dividend Income category (while temporarily increasing your cash balance in your broker account). Recording the purchase of new shares will increase your cost "basis" in the security (while reversing the temporary increase in your cash balance, bringing it back to zero). At each year-end, you should have the proper income amount in your dividends category. And at any time, your Portfolio should show the correct number of shares and cost basis, including the reinvested dividends. (Click the Plus sign in front of that security to see the list of lots, including a lot for each reinvested dividend.) If you've recorded your past dividend reinvestments differently, you probably need to go back and, working chronologically, delete each old entry and record each pair of transactions properly. For each transaction, be sure to record cash amounts to the penny. And record fractional shares exactly as they are recorded in your account. In most plans that I have seen, fractional shares are recorded to 3 decimal places. There will almost always be rounding differences; be sure those are in the transitory numbers (per-share prices), not in the permanently-pertinent numbers (dollars and cents, and number of shares). Otherwise, you will sooner or later have the oft-reported problem of Quicken either saying you are trying to sell more shares than you have, or saying that you still have shares of the security after you know you've sold it all; in either case, it's because of rounding errors too small to display (trying to sell 100 shares when you have only 99.999999, or having sold 100 shares when you had 100.0000003 in the account). If I've misinterpreted your question, please post back and correct my understanding. RC -- R. C. White, CPA (Retired - no longer licensed to practice) San Marcos, TX rc@corridor.net |
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#4
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I thought I remember hearing here that using the single ReinDiv
transaction was the way to go because it gave a better reporting of ROI, but I may have mis-remembered. -- Mike |
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#5
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Mike L is correct. It is better to use a single transaction for
reinvestment of dividends. This allows Quicken to correctly track the amount you have invested in a security. This amount shows up as "$ Invested" or "Amount Invested" (depending on your Q version) in various portfolio views. Any view which displays "Amount Invested" -- or uses it internally as part of a further calculation -- will show incorrect results if you separate out the Div and the Bought transactions. Using two transactions causes Q to believe that you have invested more money than you really have. - Bob |
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#6
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Quote:
remember!) anyone suggesting this double entry. Why do you say this vs. simply using the REINVEST DIVIDEND transaction? What does your method provide that the use of this (simpler, it seems to me) single entry provide? Now saying that, I will let you know that (at least for Vanguard Brokerage), they DO issue a DIV followed by a BUY transaction for stock dividends, so they do it your way. So I'm not trying to be cute here, merely trying to understand and learn from your suggestion. Obviously Vanguard too thinks it's the way to go! -- -- Regards - - Andrew |
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#7
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Well ReInvest doesn't work quite right. For my Money Market Fund, I
paid the tax caused by the 1099-DIV for each year. No more should be due. But Quicken is handling each reinvested dividend as an individual lot. So when I sold a bunch of the MMF, it caused TurboTax to do a capital gains calculation on the many, many individual lots. I don't know why the "Average Cost" method is not taking care of everything. |
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#8
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Hi, Andrew - and all.
It's not that I object to using the single-transaction ReinvInc entry. In fact, back when I owned some mutual funds, I used that ReinvInc (or ReinvDiv or ReinSh or similar) entry regularly. But it's important to recognize that two transactions have taken place, even though the recording has been collapsed into one entry. There are several ways that a stockholder can end up with more shares without buying them with cash from other sources. One is a "stock dividend". That is, a dividend that the company pays in shares of stock, rather than in cash. It's much like a stock split, but instead of splitting 3-for-1, we could think of it as a 200% stock dividend. But stock dividends are usually much smaller, like a 5% stock dividend, giving us an additional 5 shares for each 100 shares owned. In these kinds of stock dividends, no cash changes hands, except for fractional shares. Many stockholders hold shares in a "dividend reinvestment plan". In some plans, the company itself may hold your stock; in others, a third party, such as a trust company, holds the shares. In these plans, when the company pays a dividend in cash, the trustee receives the money, then buys shares with it. It may buy shares from the company treasury, or it may buy them in the market. There may or may not be transaction fees for each purchase; there may or may not be an annual or other management fee charged by the trustee. The stockholder may be entitled to buy shares for less than open-market value. There are many variations in all these terms of the plans. But in each one, the stockholder must recognize and record each of the steps of the transaction currently, paying tax on the dividend income and recording the number of shares purchased, the dates and the cost of each. Otherwise, some poor CPA is going to get the job of straightening it out someday when the accumulated shares are sold. And if only SOME of the shares are sold, the job is even tougher! Mutual funds typically offer the dividend reinvestment option. Periodically (quarterly or monthly, usually), the fund pays a dividend but the shareholder receives no cash, just a statement that says he now has more shares. Some shareholders are shocked to receive a 1099 at the end of the year that says they have dividend income, because they never got any cash. And when they sell all (or - shudder! - some) of those shares, they have great difficulty in calculating their gain or loss. Many of them forget to add in all those dividends on which they had to pay taxes. And they have this vague feeling that they are paying taxes twice on that income - because, often, they are. Sometimes the mutual fund pays dividends that are not "ordinary income". These dividends might be from long-term or mid-term or short-term capital gains. In unusual cases, they might be non-taxable dividends. These dividends might require special handling in recording the income side. But the cash from any of them is "just cash"; when that cash is used to purchase more shares, the taxpayer's basis is increased by the amount of cash paid. And the holding period for each lot starts on that dividend date. So long as you recognize both parts of the transaction, it's more efficient to use ReinvInc. But if you don't understand it, you'll end up like the OP, who asked, "Is the cost of re-investing the dividends added to our cost basis although we have paid taxes on the dividends that were re-invested." If the dividend and purchase transactions had been recorded separately, he would have understood that he had received taxable income and had used the cash generated by that income to purchase more shares - and that THAT cash (from the dividends) is just as much a part of his basis as the cash that came from his bank account to buy the original shares. You say that Vanguard fund managers "DO issue a DIV followed by a BUY transaction for stock dividends". Perhaps other managers combine them into a single line on their reports, but the underlying facts are that those managers also created two transactions, or at least a two-step transaction. There is an important tax difference between (a) dividends paid in shares and (b) cash dividends used to buy more shares. Stock dividends and splits are not taxable; the tax code recognizes that you simply own what you owned before, even though that wealth is represented by more shares. But cash dividends are generally taxable to you, whether you use that cash to buy dinner or a new car or more shares. I tried using and understanding Quicken's reports of investment returns when I first started using Quicken back in the early 1990s. I never could make sense of their calculations, so I haven't tried to calculate ROI in at least a decade. I'll let someone else explain how Quicken calculates returns on reinvested dividends. Is my investment different if the company sends me a check, which I deposit, after which I buy more shares, than if the company keeps my check and buys more shares with it without letting me see the check? Should my ROI calculation be different? My recommendation is to use ReinvInc if you can remember that it really represents two transactions. But if you get confused, then show the two transactions separately to help you understand and remember what really happened. RC -- R. C. White, CPA (Retired - no longer licensed to practice) San Marcos, TX rc@corridor.net |
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#9
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Quote:
deficiency very nicely. Whatever the best way to record for Quicken purposes is probably the best way to go here for everyone using the product; seems to me this has been settled previously. -- Mike |
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#10
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FWIW, I ran a test.
(and as always R.C. White, thank you for a most illuminating reply!) I created two securities (SEC1 and SEC2) and 'bought' 100 shares of each on the same day using the same price per share. I entered a dividend for both, one using the single REINV DIV function, the other using a two-transaction DIVIDEND/BUY sequence. I then 'sold' all shares (using Q's 'Sell All Shares' function) following that. I then ran a series of reports against both securities at various times (after the dividend, and after the sale) and found absolutely no differences between all the items that I would consider significant, including: - Cost basis - Value of each security after receiving the dividends - # of shares after receiving the dividends - Price Per Share during all the transactions - Investment Income report yielding dividends received for both securities - Gross Sales Proceeds - Cost basis per share of the securities sold - Realized Gain Received So IMHO, Quicken handles both exactly the same in terms of what it does regardless of whether you enter a REINVEST DIVIDENT or a DIVIDEND received followed by a BUY as far as reporting is concerned for taxes, values, capital gains, what-have-you. But, as was pointed out, the method that your own security firm uses should be the one that you might wish to emulate if manually entering...and as I also mentioned, Vanguard indeed does it 'twice', once for the Dividend received followed by a repurchase of those shares. -- -- Regards - - Andrew |
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#11
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Try this: delete the "Sold" transactions so that your account still
holds the securities. In a Portfolio view (not a report), customize the view to include a column called "Amount Invested". (Or, if you have an older version of Quicken, "$ Invested".) Then compare the two displays for the ReinvDiv vs. the Div/Buy. I believe you will find the "Amount Invested" will differ in these two cases. The single ReinvDiv transaction version will accurately display the amount of money you have actually invested. The Div/Buy version will incorrectly add the amount of the cash dividend to your "Amount Invested". - Bob |
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#12
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Bob - What you explain is indeed true, but ....
You are right to a point - when I added the AMOUNT INVESTED column as you describe, it is indeed true that the DIV/BUY added that cash in, whereas the REINVDIV did not. *But* I also added a COST BASIS column as well, and in both cases, the amounts agree (!). The Quicken help file does describe the AMOUNT INVESTED as: "Amount Invested (Portfolio column) By default, this is the actual dollar amount that you have invested in a security to date. It includes any expenses such as commissions and fees. It does not include reinvested amounts, such as reinvested dividends, interest, or capital gains distributions. " So Q's behavior is NOT incorrect. It is doing exactly what their definition of AMOUNT INVESTED means...Quicken is calculating the amounts correctly for both AS IT DEFINES THE TERM (it specifically excludes BY THEIR DEFINITION "reinvested amounts".) So perhaps the column is almost meaningless...one needs to look at COST BASIS for tax purposes! -- -- Regards - - Andrew |
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#13
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Andrew, we're not really in disagreement. Cost Basis is clearly what you
need to look at for tax purposes. And I'm not saying that Quicken is behaving incorrectly; it's just doing what it's told. However, there are other things people use Quicken for besides taxes. Keeping track of their Return On Investment (ROI) is a good example. My contention is this: If you use the pair of Div/Bought transactions instead of the single ReinvDiv transaction, your "Amount Invested" will be reported incorrectly in Portfolio views. Furthermore -- and this is the important part -- any calculation which uses "Amount Invested" as input will also be wrong. I agree that in both cases, Cost Basis will be identical. This is as it should be. However, any calculation based on Amount Invested, for example, ROI, will be wrong if you use two transactions instead of one. Try it. Add an ROI column to your Portfolio view. The numbers will be different. The security with the Div/Bought pair will show a lower ROI than the security with the single ReinvDiv transaction. Even though you may find Amount Invested "almost meaningless" by itself, it has a visible effect on Quicken's display of your investments' performance. Now, of course, any user is free to use Quicken any way s/he likes. I do not insist that everyone has to use it the same way I do. But my interpretation of ROI is that it should reflect the amount of money I have invested out of my pocket, and that dividends are part of my return on investment as opposed to being dollars I have invested. In my view, using ReinvDiv instead of Div/Bought preserves the correct amounts for displaying meaningful numbers such as ROI. If others interpret Quicken's displays as I do, then they should use the single transaction rather than the pair. - Bob |
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#14
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With Quicken 2003 I could enter commissions with the ReinvDiv all on the same line.
With Quicken 2005 When I do that it creates two line entries, one is the ReinvDiv and the second is the commission as MiscInc. Also if I edit an old entry that was done with the commission added it removes the commission from the ReinvDiv line and adds an new line entry as MiscInc with the commission. I have had to go in and change these to the two line method of Div and Bought. Also when I left the company I was at the sold the fractional shares that where in the my company stock plan account. These entries were in the old one line form with the commission added. When they transfered over to TurboTax the commission was missing. I had to go in and manually enter the TT data. Trading emails with Quicken support they say that there is no bug and that is how Quicken is supposed to work. It looks like I am stuck with going back and removing the one line entry in favor of the two line Div/Bought. That worries me because because a dozen entries have been recalculated because the prior company was bought and there was a .675-to-1 share conversion. In the past I could unload to qif files my newer data, revert to older backup, fix the stuff, then inport. Well there is no more qif import into the the investment side of Quicken. I should never of upgraded to 2005. Just to show what is going on now, I exported a backup version of the single line ReinvDiv and what happens on the edit or new entry that causes two line entries for the transaction. ---- This is how it used to work --- !Type:Invst D10/ 5' 5 NReinvDiv YHP - CPQ ESOP I27.730392 Q3.0014 U87.15 T87.15 O3.92 ^ ---- This is what it does now ---- !Type:Invst D10/ 5' 5 NReinvDiv YHP - CPQ ESOP I27.730392 Q3.0014 U83.23 T83.23 ^ D10/ 5' 5 NMiscIncX YHP - CPQ ESOP U3.92 T3.92 M3.92 paid as fee L_DivInc|[HP (CPQ ESOP)] ^ -------- Any thoughts? gene |
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